ap−1≡1(mod p) ...(1)
Now recall from M208 that if p is prime then
(Z∗p,×p)
is a group of order p-1 (see the Handbook for M208 on page 30). Now we can use Lagrange's Theorem (Handbook page 35) to prove Fermat's little theorem as follows. Let a be a natural number that is not divisible by a prime number p, then a will be congruent to an element of the above group, i.e. to one of the set
{1,2,3,..,(p−1)}
Let this element be g so that
a≡g(mod p)
Now g will generate a cyclic subgroup of order n (Handbook page 28) and by Lagrange's Theorem (page 35) n will divide p-1, the order of the group. Hence
p−1=mn
for some natural number m and thus
ap−1≡gp−1≡gmn≡(gn)m(mod p)
Now by definition
gn≡1(mod p)
and so
ap−1≡1m≡1(mod p)
Hence (1) is proven.
Duncan
ReplyDeleteReally nice proof! Now try to do the same for Wilson's theorem >;-)
arb
nellie
Wilson's Theorem is the next topic in the book I am reading, so perhaps I will be enlightened shortly. It's nice to keep the old group theory ticking over.
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